Rohit Sharma’s ODI future was on the agenda at a high-level BCCI review meeting held in Mumbai on Thursday.

The meeting also considered the ODI status of Virat Kohli and Ravindra Jadeja, with both seen as facing less pressure than Rohit.

Head coach Gautam Gambhir, chief selector Ajit Agarkar and Committee of Experts head VVS Laxman were among those in attendance.

The review spanned injury management, India’s 2027 ODI World Cup plans, and player availability for the upcoming New Zealand tour.

Speculation continues that a selection committee member had already told Rohit the panel wanted to move on from his ODI role.

Rohit was reportedly also asked about his future plans following India’s Lord’s ODI during the team’s recent tour of England.

The review is also expected to cover injury management protocols and player availability ahead of India’s upcoming tour of New Zealand.

India’s 2027 ODI World Cup planning has become a growing focus for the BCCI, with the review meeting expected to shape squad direction over the coming months.

The review comes at a point where the senior core of India’s ODI side, several of whom have played key roles in past World Cup campaigns, faces a natural generational transition.

Any decisions from the meeting on player futures are expected to be communicated through official BCCI channels rather than leaked selection discussions.

The meeting brought together head coach Gautam Gambhir, chief selector Ajit Agarkar and Committee of Experts head VVS Laxman in Mumbai.

Captain Shubman Gill and ODI captain Shreyas Iyer were also expected to attend, alongside BCCI secretary Devajit Saikia and president Mirthun Manhas.

Kohli and Jadeja are not believed to be under significant pressure over their ODI futures, with the greater share of attention centred on Rohit Sharma’s position.

There has been speculation that a member of the selection committee had already informed Rohit that the panel wanted to move on from his ODI role.

Photo of Rohit Sharma, Wikimedia Commons, GODL-India

Devdutt Padikkal has reflected on being named Player of the Series in India’s 1-0 Test win over Sri Lanka, saying the individual honour would have felt even better with a series sweep.

The left-hander scored 328 runs at an average of over 109 across the two Tests, hitting two centuries with a best of 167 after replacing the injured Sai Sudharsan in the XI.

“It would have been better if we got the win in this game as well. But at the end of the day, I’m happy that I could contribute,” Padikkal said of the drawn second Test.

He added that facing Sri Lanka’s spin attack had been a key personal target: “I was personally looking forward to the same, making sure I was prepared really well leading up to the series.”

India took the series with a 165-run win in Galle before Sri Lanka’s Sonal Dinusha forced a draw in Colombo with twin centuries in the second Test.

India won the series 1-0 after taking the first Test in Galle by 165 runs, before Sri Lanka’s Sonal Dinusha batted the hosts to an epic draw in the second Test at Colombo with an unbeaten 133.

Dinusha, who scored a century in each innings of the second Test, was named Player of the Match for his efforts, even as Padikkal’s series-long consistency saw him take the overall series honour.

India’s failure to close out the second Test meant the side missed out on a share of crucial World Test Championship points that a series sweep would have brought.

Padikkal’s 167 came in India’s first innings of the series and remains his highest Test score to date, underlining the scale of his breakthrough on the tour.

The left-hander’s performance has strengthened his case for a settled opening role in India’s Test line-up heading into the team’s upcoming home season.

Photo by Lionel Allorge, Wikimedia Commons, CC BY-SA 3.0 (representative cricket image)